Spanish language Q&A Forum

why is  No todavía hemos cenado. marked wrong

The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below. 

1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre. 

I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not. 

1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre. 

Hello Kwiziq,

Is there a rule for when to use 'a la calle'? I think I know the difference between por/en la calle but this 'a la calle' caught me out.

Kind regards

Dee

There has to be some loose English equivalent of this mood. The best I can think of:

“He will be so daring!”

even if it’s very archaic. Even then “would” would be much more acceptable. Any ideas?

Hola, 

Update - I just found the lesson on this.  When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past (Perfecto vs Indefinido)

I live in the US and just switched to Latin American Spanish, since it is more likely Spanish speakers I meet will speak this way.  I am curious if El Pretérito Perfecto is used in LatAm Spanish when not talking about experiences.  

Hola Inma,

why the personal "a" is omitted here? - representar a las mujeres 

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

There was a test question that said ´8 a 10´ means the same thing as ´8 menos 10´ but this guide doesn´t mention it.

Are they interchangeable?