Spanish language Q&A Forum

Is it worth including "porque sé hablar tres idiomas" as another permissible option? ... (Or if that is wrong, perhaps you could point us towards an explanation as to why it is necessary to use "puedo" here).

For this question:  Es improbable que los niños ________ la puerta. These options show as correct:  hayan roto / rompieran.  I understand hayan roto, as the impersonal beginning signifies "subjunctive", and the event is in the past. However, I learned at a language school in Cuernavaca that present tense statements (es improbable) could only match with haber + participle, and that only past events (eg "era improbable" could match with imperfect subjunctive (rompieran). The teachers made a big deal out of that. However here it shows up as a legitimate option. Can you explain?  Thank you.

Hello all, sorry if this is a long and unusal question..
Are there any professional teachers here, or professionals who have studied learning methods?
I am determined to get the very best from the software, but wonder if I am. 
For example, i complete each of the "writing practice" exercises twice, back to back, which in my mind means that I am cementing my learning, but on the second run through I'm concerned that I may just have blindly memorised each answer.  I do stop and research every part I get wrong if I don't see my mistake, but I'm still concerned I'm just being a parrot.
So, over to the professionals, what would you recommed for best learning practice in this software?
Thanks

In the test the question was: 

I become a vegetarian while my sister becomes a vegan. : Yo me hago vegetariana mientras mi hermana se haga vegana.

Shouldn't it be "mientras mi hermana se hace vegana"? Since mientras is used as "while" in this sentence?

Thanks much

Kaly

Could someone please clarify the vowel change from e->i on reir. It looks like it is just be dropping the e.

Thank you.

I miss the rationale behind this. is this something to learn 'by heart'? as in, just learn these exceptions and you're good to go?... or is there some reasoning, eg. that without the accent it would be pronounced wrong.. this because of ?

Why isn't it en EL verano?

Two sentences from today's lessons for me:

1. ?Vosotras pudisteis reservar ese hotel tan barato?

2. Lo he visto a él primero, y después de ella.

In both sentences, the accented stress on the recording is on the last syllable of the last word. I like to listen to all the sentences without looking and make sure I understand what is said.  This pronunciation fools me every time.  Why is it not on the penultimate syllable?  Is this regional?