Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, Inma

I translated the sentence "it would be very difficult to determine it." into "sería difícil de definirlo", and the correct answer removed the "de".

But when I translated the sentence "that will be hard to forget for tango lovers" into "que será difícil olvidar para los amantes del tango." the correct answer asked me to add a "de" after "difícil". 

I'm so confused now.

Saludos

Wenli

In writing exercise "A perfect day in Granada", I am expected to use simple present tense to talk about the near future plans. And the "ir + verb" structure is not accepted as an alternative correct answer. Why?

One of the choices was "Comportándose" which was marked wrong. However, according to this lesson, wouldn't that also be correct:
Using the Spanish gerund as a command %252Fsearch%253Fs%253Dusing%252Bthe%252Bgerund%252Bas%252Ba%252Bcommand

Maybe I'm missing some reason why it doesn't work in this case? Thanks!

How is "HINT: Dolores ___ en su juventud" a hint? :)

Hi there, In English it would be ‘rims of the glasses’ not ‘rim of the glasses’. The sentence you have written for translation uses the singular, which is incorrect. Rims would be in the plural, not singular. In Spanish it appears the singular is used not the plural ‘frota el borde de los vasos’. Is this correct?

Using El Pretérito Imerfecto in the Gabriel example above seems incorrect/confusing to me, also. Correct me if I'm wrong, but doesn't the imperfect here indicate a general inability to do something, like Gabriel just didn't know how to put the key in the keyhole (incidentally, the sentence should read "key in the keyhole", "keyS in the keyholeS", or "key in the keyholeS" if a single key fits two locks), which seems highly unlikely? It seems to me that El Pretérito Indefinido is more appropriate because: Gabriel didn't manage/succeed in putting the key in the keyhole, and we are referring to a specific moment in the past and the time when it happened is relevant.

ıs that wrong sentence? why don't we say 'hay demasiadas frutas en la nevera'.?

because fruit is countable.ı think we should use 'many ' for countable and in spanish many is damasiada.

Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.

I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.

BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow" 

I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments. 

 This seems much more like a substitution, no? 

When I quizzed my Studyplan, one of the questions was:

"What does "Olivia fue a la piscina esta mañana." mean?

The correct answer was: "Olivia went to the swimming pool this morning.", which I got right, because 'ir' is followed by 'a' in this sentence.

I noticed that in the lesson all the examples using "ser" in the Preterito Indefinido were followed by either a noun or an adjective: 

"Él fue alpinista en su juventud."  (He was a climber in his youth.) In this case a "noun"; 

"Ellos fueron muy famosos el año pasado." (They were very famous last year.) In this case an "adjective".

My question is how would you say, "Olivia WAS at the swimming pool this morning."?

Would you say, "Olivia fue en la piscina esta manana."?, using "en" rather than "a"?

("Olivia fue la piscina esta manana." doesn't sound right at all.)

If this is the case, a few examples added to the lesson would be a great help.

Gracias y Saludos