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5,888 questions • 9,631 answers • 965,977 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,888 questions • 9,631 answers • 965,977 learners
I put 'en mitad de' and was marked wrong. According to your lesson on that topic they are sinónimos.
Please clarify
Gracias
i have read somewhere that perfect tense could be used too
for example, he estudiado desde hace 6 meses. = estudio desde hace 6 meses.
is this piece of information wrong? when can we use perfect tense then?
Hi, surely the English Sentence should read.
The first thing I’ll do when I get home is TO LIE/LAY on the sofa.
En este caso para yo, el contexto no es importante.
En la programa, se dice,
"No podemos escuchar bien = We can't hear well." .
Siempre pensaba que escuchar quiere decir "to listen" y oír quiere decir "to hear".
Por favor lo explícame la diferencia.
Hi
I would say "I'm going on holidays" plural in English. It might be regional, I'm Australian and have lived in London for 20 years. I think it could be used singular or plural.
I've been a bit confused because I would put it the same way as in Spanish. I've got a lot wrong thinking it was different. Could It be explained some non-US English call it holidays plural too. Are there any others that found this confusing?
two different answers, i think...
i am having problems... estoy teniendo
i am dying of thirst... muero por que no estoy muriendo de sed???
elizabeth
Así pues, si tengo - atreverse alguien a hacer algo - to dare someone to do something.
How would I say: I dare you to do this - because it's atreverse you have to say me for me and then te for you? for example te atreveme a hacer esto. But it doesn't make sense because it's like the other person is daring me but in fact it's me daring the person. te atrave a hacer esto I think is better but then what about the 'me' because it's reflexive.
Surely " foggy" is an adjective . The noun is " fog" ! So why not use "está " for " it is foggy " _
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