Still confused Luis y yo no hemos roto ________ nos hemos dado un tiempo para pensar.Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Suggestion: To be consistent with other pages, and avoid confusion, I suggest you mark all the "i"s that are irregular in this conjugation.
Could this be desde hace in this sentence
Apropos of ' "Lo que" vs "la cosa que" ', I sometimes see "cosa que" used to mean "which", as in
Querían detenerme por robo, cosa que no hice.
Is this usage correct? If so, is there a lesson that discusses it?
More examples here:
https://context.reverso.net/translation/spanish-english/%2C+cosa+que
Thanks!
I keep trying to learn different grammar points, but all I ever get is VERB tests after VERB test. What is wrong with this program!!!!!
Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.
I put "pero" because this seems like new information as much as a substitution, or at least it's a very complex substitution.
BUT, one of your example sentences for "pero" is, roughly, "I can't go out tonight, but I'll go out tomorrow." In one of your earlier replies, you give this example: "Ella no puede venir hoy sino mañana. (substituting)S he can't come today but tomorrow"
I don't understand why these two seemingly interchangeable examples are given first as an example for "pero" in the main text and then as an example for "sino" in the comments.
This seems much more like a substitution, no?
Dying one's hair is something which maybe be done oneself or by professionals. Am I to understand that the construction of a sentence about hair dye is the same regardless of whether one does it to oneself or has it done by professionals? Are we left to infer which is the case based on how good the resultant hair looks?
I suppose this is similar in English wherein someone might observe "you cut your hair" as readily as "you got a haircut" but with rare exceptions (thinking of my brother circa age 4) intend to imply even in the first case that you yourself cut your own hair.
I am finding the use of the verb Hay in tenses other Present Indicative confusing. Is it because the verb retains its multi purpose use of meaning? I mean, "hay" means both "there is" and "there are" in the Present Indicative, and "hubo" means "there was" and "there were", even though the following noun is plural? Also, after "si" when is "hubo" used in preference to "hubiera"?
cuál/cuáles is that the latter is asking about something specific from a predetermined group of items.
Names are a predetermined group of items?
Hola todos,
Hoping you are all well.
I have 2 questions on this exercise:
that broke the monotony of black and white.
1-) re: que rompía la monotonía del blanco y negro.
I wrote: "del negro y blanco."
Could you tell me why the Spanish inverts the adjectives. (I even checked with Reverso and they translated it the same way.
2) re: and people liked it.
Kwizbot y a la gente le gustaba.
You y le gustaba a la gente.
Don't know why this particular arrangement would be the only one possible?
Thank you.
Nicole
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