Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, please would you explain why the verb SER is used in the sentence "la comida del restaurante era mala".  I'm confused which rule is used to trigger SER rather than ESTAR,

Thanks

The example has hay with foggy but esta with sunny. I don’t understand 

I can't see the difference in meaning between the English of the first and second examp;es in the lesson, so how can I decode on Indicative or Subjubctive?

Why does should have done [something] use the present conditional rather than the perfect conditional?

I understand that No, Verdad are correct and taught in the lesson but is vale really wrong?

In the sentence "Al calentar la leche me quemé"  I feel like in English we would use a comma between 'leche' and 'me' to separate the two clauses. Is this not the case in Spanish? (I might have it wrong in English.) 

I don't understand why the answer is "ustedes."  The speaker seems to be talking to a single child which would suggest singular, familiar and not formal and plural.  Help me understand why.

That film is not appropriate for you. You are only 10 years old.

(HINT: Use the right pronoun after the preposition.)

nos

ustedes

sus

ti