Spanish language Q&A Forum

In a children's story, people named a baby tapir "Tapete". Does the name carry a meaning of affection by changing the word tapir and making it sound cute? Or do they just want to name the baby tapir with the meaning of the word "mat"? Thank you!

I thought it should have been una reunión de negocias but that was marked as incorrect. Is it always the case that a noun modifying another noun comes in its original form or is it a special case for "negocios"?

¿En español se puede usar hacia en el contexto de la actitud de alguien o algo? Por ejemplo en ingles se puede decir "I don't like your attitude towards me" o "We will work towards that". 

¿Se puede decir algo como "no me gusta su actitud hacia yo"?

Saludos

Matt

I still don't understand why this is incorrect:

Ella tiene dos casas y los dos están en Miami.She has two houses and both are in Miami.

1. ¿En el verano qué instalan en España en las ciudades y los pueblos?

The following two sentences use the indirect pronoun 'le' before the verb. Why is 'le' necessary in these cases? Is it considered incorrect if it's removed? Examples with and without 'le' are below. 

1. Tú les das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella le muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre. 

I've heard native speakers omitting 'le' in similar sentence constructions, but I'm unsure if it's correct to do so or not. 

1. Tú das vino a mis abuelos.

2. Ella muestra un sombrero nuevo al hombre.