Spanish language Q&A Forum

A question in the quiz said “estoy viendo un documental en la tele”. Why would this not be mirando en lugar de viendo?

How in the hell is that "llegaremos"? Even with about 50 repeats I did not get that. Is she actually saying something else or how does that work? Always sounds like "digaremos" to me :-(

For this lesson I’ve got a bunch of rules bouncing around in my head regarding when to use indicative vs subjective without understanding the “why” behind the rules. Can you provide any guidance on why these rules are the way they are to help me remember them?

The quiz question was “muchas veces estoy triste” being translated to “I am often sad”. Why would that not be “A menudo estoy triste”?

Why is lo the answer if its referring to them? Is el trabajo what lo is referring to?

A quiz question asks “vas a venir al cine mañana?”. In English it seems more common to say “are you going to go the movies tomorrow?” (or simply “are you going to the movies tomorrow?”) Any insights into this use of venir instead of ir?

Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].

My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?

Whi are no commas after rebanadas de pan duro   3 litros de caldo de carne etc when she is mentioning some of the ingredients.  Some have commas but others like  I mentioned  do not?

have commas but not the 

Is there a reason lucir (lucí), relucir, etc. don´t follow this rule?