Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the lesson on using perfecto vs indefinido, above the "tip block", the term "El Preterito Perfecto" is used twice.  Probably the second use is an oversight.

I use a tablet to practice Lawless Spanish while on the treadmill. I am unable to place accent marks with the tablet, usually this is not a problem as those answers go into the nearly correct column. My answer to: Los estudiantes ya _____ las instrucciones, han leido was marked wrong. This is inconsistent and confusing. Please look into this.

1. Qué música te gusta más?

What music do you like the most?

2. Cuál universidad es mejor?

Which university is better?

Is Qué + noun used when the universe to chose from is large?

Is Cuál + noun used when the universe to chose from is small?

Would you say Cuál universidad es más mejor or Qué universidad es más mejor?

Which university is the best?

Hello, I am near the end of my Spanish lessons in Kwiziq and I was told by a previous instructor that many tenses (or moods, etc) are no longer used in Spanish. In a previous lesson in the C1 grammar, I think it was mentioned that the future subjunctive mood is no longer used, but it can be found in older books. Can anyone let me know of any tenses that are no longer used that they know about?  Or anything about Spanish grammar that is now obsolete?

Thanks, I'm just curious to know : )

How can I get private Spanish lessons?

The context seems like “i had written” which would be “había escrito” (?).

Muchas gracias

Shirley

is there a rule if adjectives are before or after the noun?

Tengo dos hermosas hijas OR Tengo dos hijas hermosas?

Does it mean “he doesn’t know who he’s dealing with?”

Thanks again

Shirley

Hi

Forgive me if there is already a thread addressing this question.

I was a bit confused about a question that began with "no dudo que..." and asked for the verb to be conjugated in the present subjunctive. I followed the hint and it was marked as correct even though it ran contrary to my prior understanding of the subjunctive. I thought "dudo que..." indicated subjunctive because there was uncertainty/doubt but "no dudo que..." negates the doubt making it certain and thus, requires the indicative. 

Is this an exception to the rule or did I simply mislearn this topic?

Thanks

Nathan

How do we know to use para ser vs para una?