A question about indirect object pronouns and IO or reflexive pronouns instead of possessive pronouns?Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Hay and hace both seem to use nouns but they don't seem to be interchangeable. I'm puzzled as to why, for example, it's hace calor but hay humedad.
Are these translations also valid:
"It was magnificent!" = "¡Qué magnífico!"
"I arrived in just two hours!" = "¡Tardé solo dos horas en llegar!"
"We also drank cava!" = "¡Bebimos cava también!"
Also, can "Después" be changed with "Luego"?
Hola,
In the sentence "I could be Superman", is it more natural to say "yo podría ser Superman", or "yo sería Superman"?
Gracias,
I see quite some time has been devoted to this subject. The first time I read the hairdresser example, the English struck me as quite wrong. I would add my two cents as follows:
If I went to the hairdresser, I'd spend a lot of money or If I went (had gone) to the hairdresser, I would have spent a lot of money.
Those seem to me to be the simplest way to correct it because one can't correctly say I would spent.
.
Hello, in "Puedes hacer lo que quieras, no me importa.", why is it quieras and not quieres ? I got that it's the subjunctive but I don't understand why. Thanks !
Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")
However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo):
"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"
why are the translations:
1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted
while the translations:
2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?
I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?
Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.
Hello,
Re: Page: https://spanish.kwiziq.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/judge/183/422794?response=53775&page=11
The text reads: There are only advantages!
The best answer is :¡sólo hay ventajas!
You could also say:¡Solo hay ventajas!
Or also:¡Solo hay beneficios!
Why no accents on the other two "solo"s?
Nicole
Tiene - can be stated with or without tu, so this question should be marked correct!
Hi there, I notice contar wasn’t in this list? Or is it always the case that an -ar- verb ending in “ontar” will change its stem?
vegana por su novio. I put se ha hecho.
My sister has become a vegan for her boyfriend.How is this different from the example given with the use of hacerse?
Example given:Se ha hecho vegetariana después de ver el documental.She became a vegetarian after watching the documentary.
Is it because he changed (radically) for his girlfriend and not his (ideology) on his own accord ?
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