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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,108 questions • 10,004 answers • 1,050,013 learners
Why is it "*por* dónde estaremos" instead of "dónde estaremos" in the sample question?
For Question 8 I answered 'trabaje' believing it to be the correct subjunctive form but it was marked incorrect and 'trabaja' was given as the correct answer. Would you please explain. Many thanks.
I don’t see any explanation in this unit as to use of the Subjunctive and yet many of the verbs in the examples are in the Subjunctive. Could you make it explicit what this depends on? Thank you.
I understand that pronouns can be left out and the subject is determined by the context of the sentence. I am not very familiar with Castillian, so can "vosotros" be left out in the above sentence and still be grammatically correct?
I personally find it helpful to bear in mind that all verbs ending in "-etir" follow the above-mentioned e>i pattern [like competir] - e.g. repetir and derretir.
And - because 'd' is just the voiced form of 't' - some people may like to extend this guide to include all the "-edir" verbs as well; e.g. pedir, impedir, medir.
Hi, how does Fiesta fit into this lesson? Gracias, shirley.
There could be an element of doubt in "Piensan que"
Would you use subjunctive to translate?
They think that the missing jewels might have been stolen but they are not sure.
She might have left them at the hotel.
Though most of the English translations here use the future tense, as an American English native speaker it sounds stilted to me. I would normally say, for example, "I hope you come out with us tonight", "I hope they're very happy in their marriage.", and "My brother and I hope that you have lots of luck with the job." To me, this form, which is our very subtle subjunctive present tense, is a more natural translation from the Spanish present subjunctive than the English translations in future tense here.
What are the equivalents for can't & must not for logical conclusions in Spanish? That is, how can I express the difference in meanings given in the following examples?
(present)
The restaurant can't be open - the door is locked
The restaurant must not be any good - it is always empty
(Past)
He had left the office at 6:00 p.m. He can't /couldn't have been at home at 6:05 p.m
She was not answering the doorbell. She must not have been at home then.
Regards,
Alexander
While experimenting with nunca in negative sentences for a while, my instinct kept telling me to include the definite article in one particular construction, where it would not be required in any of the others.
ie. Never eat sweets before dinner (imperative)
= No comas nunca LOS dulces antes de la cena
Could you clarify for me 1) if the article is actually required here at all, or 2) if it could be used correctly as an option.
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