Spanish language Q&A Forum

Maybe there already is one, but a nice reference would be an explanation of the Spain-spanish pronunciations from a Latin American perspective. Because I am hearing the "th" sound in at least three different letters: c, g, and z. I sometimes hear "d" pronounced as "v".

Several letters (g, q, d, and even j) are often pronounced with a rough sound that has no equivalent letter sound, more like a middle eastern language sound.

Others (heard in the listening exercise following this one): T pronounced as d, d as q, and z as j. It's as if the european spanish mushes different letters into one sound, and many letters are pronounced differently depending upon the word.

In a 10-question test these was the question:

¿Por qué lo ________ ?
Why are you cursing him?

I expected the answer would be a gerund, but it was not. Why was "cursing" used and not "curse?" As in, "Why (do) you curse him?"

Hi,

The translation given for the above is 'You apologised to me'.

I thought it meant 'You asked me for forgiveness', because You were doing the asking.  Would 'apologised' not be a different word?

I know that I may translating more literally, but I am I completely wrong?

Saludos,

Colin

If  isimo  or ito or mente   is used  can either be used for these words as a suffixes.  

If any one can inform 

The test question was to conjugate maldecir into the "they" form but no explanation of how to do so was given, only for "decir" ("dicen"). But maldecir does not follow the same rule as "decir" it seem because the correct conjugation was shown to be "maldicen" (and not "maldecen," which would match the "decir" pattern). Why is there a difference in the conjugation pattern between decir and maldecir? Is there a rule to be learned? Thanks!

For the second sentence, you hint to use El Pretérito Indefinido but the right answer is "era" which is El Pretérito Imperfecto. I should have gotten it anyways but just wanted to let you know in case you want to change the hint. 

The European pronunciation is really weird-sounding. "Z" pronounced as "f," "c" pronounced as "th," and "vodka" sounded like "votha." And this is the first time I heard a "g" pronounced as it was in "ginebra." I guess I need to do more of these listening exercises! Or is it too much trouble to include a Latin American version?

Does “¿Dónde estarán?” mean both “where will they be?” and “where might they be?” ?

I would think there would be different ways to express the two different meanings in Spanish.

2nd paragraph: Is there a lesson that discusses "que" used to mean "to be?"

I searched on "que" and got 1620 hits, so I scanned the first 60 and did not see "que" and "to be" in any lesson title.

Would "no ha" be better thought of as "has not" instead of "didn't?" I don't know what the grammatical difference is between the two, or if one exists.