"When I was young, I would eat sugar": comía or comería?In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
In the question "¿________ semana te vas de vacaciones?" the answer was Que, but since a specific week was being requested, wouldn't the answer actually be Cual? (sorry it seems I cannot make letters with an accent in the Q&A Forum fields)
> My boyfriend is always asking me to be patient with him.
Translating this into the English subjunctive would be “My boyfriend is always asking that I be patient with him.” And that keeps the “que=that” part of things too!
In a sentence like "I don't know what he knows" or "I don't know if he knows" the sentence can express doubt or merely be a statement of fact. Wouldn't the choice of whether to use the indicative or subjunctive depend on what you are trying to convery (ie: "No sé lo que sepa" if I am trying to express doubt about what he knows but "No sé lo que sabe" if I am simply stating the fact that I don't know what he knows)?
Can you explain what an impersonal verb is an how I know when to use it, please?
One of the examples is:
Su actitud se volvió violenta de repente.
Is it correct to assume that the change is a lasting one, as with someone who got hit on the head with a shovel and after that was a violent person?
Compared to:
Su actitud se puso violenta de repente.
In this case, cowboys in a saloon in a Western movie insult someone and he stands up quickly and draws his gun?
Just want to double check that these differences are correct. Thanks.
I wish it was better explained when to use this tense instead of just giving examples
In the explanatory pop-up for "Como se prepara una tortilla de patatas:" https://spanish.kwiziq.com/revision/grammar/expressing-instructions-and-general-statements-with-the-impersonal-se-one.
I'll spend some time on this exercise because I find these uses of "se" to be very interesting.
Also this was my first encounter with "echa/echan." There does not appear to be a lesson dedicate to its conjugation, but there is this which seems to be sufficient: https://spanish.kwiziq.com/revision/grammar/expressing-instructions-and-general-statements-with-the-impersonal-se-one.
>In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence, for example "a mí, a tí, a ella", it is necessary to repeat the indirect object by using the "short" pronoun (me, te, le, nos, os, les) in the same sentence.
I think this should be reworded. That "and it is at the beginning of the sentence" makes it seem like you don't need the shrot pronoun if you put the "a + pronoun" elsewhere in the sentence. I know one of the examples and the little tip box later clarify this, but I still think rewording that paragraph would help.
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level