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6,109 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,051,369 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,109 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,051,369 learners
Hello,
I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'
The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'
But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.
Thanks!
Hola,
The answer was "Voy a pedirle que me lleve a su casa" as translation of "I am going to ask her to take me home."
Why is the indirect object pronoun "le" used in this sentence and not "la" the direct object pronoun? I'm wondering whether it is something to do with the way that pedir is used e.g. "ask it of her."
Can you help?
Thanks John
¿Bajo las AFFIRMATIVE COMMANDS, no debería ser "tráelos"?
Are Spanish restaurants really rated in tenedores? I would've thought that it would ha derived from Michelin stars. At least, I always assumed stars was the literal translation of whatever the French is.
Let me know how your experience is!
¡Ya me contarás cómo está tu experiencia!
lit: "you'll already tell me how your experience is!", you = túWhy do we say it in a way that we already know how the experience is when we are asking someone to let us know?
I have noticed that all of the verbs that have a stem change in the future (querer -> querr- and tener -> tendr-) have the same stem in the future and the conditional tenses. Is this a general rule, or are there exceptions.
Would it be safe to assume that "por" is used instead of "para" when it makes sense to say "porque", or "because" in English? This was just a connection I made while reading the lesson, and knowing this would be really helpful! If so, can the two words just be swapped out for one another? Thanks!
HI
I used 'cuando suene la alarma' and was corrected to 'cuando suena la alarma'. I notice that an alternative could be 'cuando suene el despertador' so would my original translation, using the subjunctive with 'la alarma', be ok to use?
Many thanks
Dee
Hola,
In a Spanish show I've been watching, I often see the Object verb subject construction. What I would like to know is how prevalent this construction is in everyday Spanish. Are there situations where it is more commonly used?
Example.
Nos gustaría que sus cosas las tuvieran los niños.
Nos gustaría que los niños las tuvieran sus cosas.
*Sus cosas = Las cosas de sus hijas
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