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Why is “hay” not used.
I was wondering if there was a reply to his question below:
"didn't need to (infinitive) & needn't have (past participle) are used to express the lack of necessity in the past, ..."
Hello, there's another bug : I'm stuck at 75% while I was at 100%, I didn't make any mistake and when I pass test my score doesn't go up.
I have a bug. With some lessons, I can't achieve 100%, it stays at the same level.
Could you do something ?
In one of the examples above, shouldn't it be admitiría? Or the translation should be She didn't admit
No admitía que vosotras estuvieseis enfadadas con vuestros maridos.
She wouldn't admit that you were angry with your husbands.
Can I use it without and with que interchangeably?
I am confused. I am trying to sort out the diffences but I don't see it.
For example, in the sentences: both mean: It is good that you study every afternoon.
Es bueno que estudies todas las tardes.
Está bien que estudies todas las tardes.
Es + bueno [adjective]
Está + bien [adverb]
Can you show the relationships for each?
Any difference at all in the individual meaning?
And why would you use one over the other? And under what circumstances?
Any other lessons to clarify this?
As you can tell, I’m confused! Help. J
This is the quiz that is stuck at 80% and thus preventing my overall B2 score from increasing.
One of the questions testing the present subjunctive of haber is:
Los pájaros irán donde ________comida.
With the correct answer being haya.
I understand the subjunctive being used in cases of hope, desire etc but I don't understand why it is used in this case rather than 'hay'.