"When I was young, I would eat sugar": comía or comería?In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
¡Hola!
May I ask why is the phrase "Encantado de conocerle/te" is translated as Pleased/Nice "to meet" you in English and not Pleased/Nice "meeting" you, if the preposition "de" is followed by an infinitive verb in this phrase?
Thanks!
El niño
I got this correct in the quiz b/c I followed the hint but I don't understand the use of Imperfecto over Indefinido here if there is a specific time period in the past identified. Why trabajaba rather than trabajo? (I know the hint says "used to" but the question still stands.) Thank you!
En el año 2010, usted ________ para una escuela primaria.In 2010, you used to work for a primary school.HINT: Conjugate "trabajar" in El Pretérito Imperfecto.
I chose the Latin American option rather than the Spanish, but I am often hearing a lisp spoken such as, "Laura y Sarah son francesas." The "c" in francesas is spoken with a lisp sound, which is not the way it would be pronounced in Latin America.
Gracias !
I don't understand why I am told that it should be "Alberto llora MUY a menudo".
Everything; the lesson included; tells me it should be "mucho".
I learned that you can use the futuro simple and the condicional simple to express something which might happen in the future.
Is the difference that the futuro simple only can be used with a sentence which states the probability of the action?
E.g.:
Tú ________ chocolate sin parar
Comerías
Pero:
Probablemente, tú comerás chocolate sin parar.
If my assumption is correct, what is the difference to:
Probablemente, tú comerías chocolate sin parar.
You answered a question at the bottom this section (to Papi on April 16, 2018) and said:
This sentence could be using both "fui" and "era" depending on the the timeframe when the action happened, being more specific (preterite) or more irrelevant (imperfect).
Could you expand a bit on the "irrelevant (imperfect)" which is an interesting perspective, I hadn't come across before.
Point in quiz being referred to:
Mi prima ________ Miss Universo. .My cousin was Miss Universe HINT: Conjugate "ser" in Pretérito indefinido
This story was very weird
In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":
When I was young, I would eat sugar.
I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:
Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.
But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:
Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.
... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.
So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?
In a textbook a sentence was given as:
“ Es muy gordo; come más que dos hombres ordinaries.”
My question is why is it not más de because of the “dos” being a quantitative factor. Is it a comparison?
One question was ____________ mucha niebla. Hay or esta. I used esta wrong. In fact mucha is never even translated. So why is it Hay, not esta and why isn’t mucha translated
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