Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi there Inma,

would you say that this structure is more formal than 'mientras' ?

Espero que todo vaya bien contigo,

G.

Is it my imagination, or is the speaker saying "yo soy debajo" instead of "yo soy bajo"? 

The confusing part is not se vs le for me but "to" vs "for." Your explanation was that an indirect object means to him/it, etc., but the example is "for him", which is very different in English. I think this needs to be explained. When I speak I usually try to clarify with "para mi" for "for me", but it may not be right.

Tom

I am having some difficulties with this sentence: Los empleados de la tienda se quedaron perplejos.

Why is quedarse used here and not quedar? I went back to the lesson that deals with the differences and therein both are used with an adjective or participle to express the result of an action (=quedar) or change (=quedarse). For quedar + adjective, it is also written that the meaning is rather "to end up", and I feel like it fits well in the sentence above: they ended up perplexed due to what Beru did. 

Could both be correct in this context?

Thanks!

When talking about forgetting things, these two forms are given:

- olvidar [algo]

- olvidarse" [de algo]

But what about forgetting someone?

Are these two forms then still correct?

Luis told me where he had gone on holiday. : Luis me dijo ___ había ido de vacaciones.

The stated answer is “dónde” (with an accent), but this usage seems to be that of a relative pronoun. What am I missing? Why is it “dónde” (with an accent)

hello 

when to use (la) or (lo) to refer to a person? if she or he is the direct object? because of the quiz had cases for la and lo, i would properly mixing them with le.