Spanish language Q&A Forum

In your example and in Spanish grammar is the “a ella” repetition of the indirect object “le” essential or is it an optional extention added for the sake of clarity?

Vivo en España - aquí usamos la palabra ‘unos’ o algunos..para mi este lección es confuso 

Hola,

I've seen this pattern and just learned it by rote, but I'm wondering why when I see venir and salir, and probably others I can't recall right now, the preposition follows the verb?

Usted normalmente sale a comer a las dos. (You usually go out to eat at two o'clock.)

Why isn't it sale comer a las dos, or Vienen nadar todos los domingos? 

I guess some rule has bypassed me at some point? What I'm most concerned is that past venir and salir, I'm going to get it wrong with other verbs.

Muchas gracias,

Hola,

The answer was "Voy a pedirle que me lleve a su casa" as translation of "I am going to ask her to take me home."

Why is the indirect object pronoun "le" used in this sentence and not "la" the direct object pronoun? I'm wondering whether it is something to do with the way that pedir is used e.g. "ask it of her." 

Can you help?

Thanks John

This asked if this was correct. I put no as mar is  a masculine noun, but this was marked as incorrect. The dictionary states it is a masculine noun. On the explanation this it states that it can be feminine in a poetic sense. This phrase is not in my opinion poetic but an observation.

Can you please explain this. Thanks

Hi, 

HINT: serio = serious

Why does serio become seriecillo when it doesn't end with an e or a constant? 

Is it common in Spanish to have two words seriecilla / seriecillo that are almost similar yet so different in meaning? 

Thank you! 

I've read the Q&A and related articles and am still confused. The sentence is: My sisters are often late, I always wait for them for two hours. When I apply the information in the lesson's Q&A, I ask myself: "For whom do I wait? For my sisters." Therefore sisters should be an indirect object. However, the quiz gives the direct object pronoun, las, as correct. Which is it and why? (Also, it would be helpful if you edited the questions so the correct answer to this appears consistently.) 

ps: it looks like Marcos and Lisa, below, are asking the same question in slightly different ways. Perhaps you can address all 3 questions as a group. Thanks!