Spanish language Q&A Forum

I thought if the two clauses in a sentence that normally takes the subjunctive both have the same subject, you would use an infinitive form rather than a subjunctive?

Hello, I would like a little help please.  In my head in order to differentiate between the imperfect past tense and the preterite past tense, I think "I used to...." to pick the imperfect.  In some of the examples here in kwiziq the "used to" is translated into English, such as here "Vosotros trabajabais en Madrid durante los años 80" as "I used to work in Madrid during the 80's"

However I have also seen "Soler" used for "used to" especially with 'IR" for used to go,

"Solía ir ..."
Is my "used to" translation for the imperfect to literal, and is it better to use "Soler" with verbs for "used to go" or "used to do" etc.
Sorry about the italics, I cut and paste a character and I can't turn them off!

From your example, Spaniards translate "corner table" as "mesa de la esquina". Would it be more accurate to say "mesa del rincón" since it is bound to be an inside corner?

Yes, I know I'm a pedant!!

In "Ella era modelo," why is this not "
"Ella era modela"? Is model a masculine word regardless of who is the model?

Ricky

What's the difference between these two? I thought they were interchangeable but the exercise 'Campsite activities' doesn't accept 'gratis'.

And, is 'canotaje' not used in Spain?

Saludos

te, se, nos vs le, les