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Is the choice based on noun agreement?
The sentence that is throwing me is:
¿Para quién has comprado esas flores tan bonitas?
Who have you bought such pretty flowers for?
When are irse and salir used? What's the difference?
Ya tienen tres niñas, ojalá el próximo sea un niño.
Ya tienen tres niñas, ojalá el próximo será un niño.
Could both of these be correct? Or would it have to be the former simply because of the need for the subjunctive mood following ojalá? The english side of my brain wants the latter to be correct too... (something like "they already have three girls; hopefully the next one will be a boy.")
Let us imagine the following scenario. There is a crowd of people at a cinema. what would the ticket controller use to invite those who had bought tickets in advance. haya or han comprado/reservado?
In every example the questions are:
De donde eres
De donde es usted
The pronoun is included in every formal example. Is it required in the formal?
I know that "no vayamos" is the correct negative command for "ir"; but I was under the impression, and my Barron's verb book confirms, that the correct affirmative imperative for "ir" is "vamos" not "vayamos".
Please help me with “Me encanta tu casa”. I understand “Me gusta” as it pleases me. However I have difficulty applying this to “It loves (encanta) me your house”.
Yo veía lo que el hacía/hizo.
Would the first verb mean that e.g. I saw how he was building something and the second that I saw the reault... e.g. a house? Thank you.