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5,423 questions • 8,599 answers • 832,685 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,423 questions • 8,599 answers • 832,685 learners
Wouldn't "rosas" be the correct form of the adjective to go with "lámparas"?
and pretérito perfecto compuesto (twice) in the same lesson for the same verb form. Is it possible to use just one.
Also, in my experience, ha invitado has usually been translated as has invited rather than invited/ ha visto as has seen rather than saw. So, I would then translate había visto as had seen. This is very confusing. Help. K
But in this specific example of the Preterito Perfecto Subjuntivo....
Cuando hayas hecho tus deberes puedes ir a jugar fuera.
Is it incorrect to also use.....
Cuando has hecho tus deberes puedes ir a jugar fuera.
Just curious if they are interchangeable in their use. Thank you.
Nelson
If I understand this right, this conditional tense can be used both for what was possible/probable in the past as well as for what could be/would be for the future?
I am used to seeing this tense in sentences such as
¿Podría llamarme mañana?
Could you call me tomorrow?/ Would you be able to call me tomorrow?
My question isn't about demonstrative pronouns but it's in relation to the translation of one of the example sentences describing their usage.
In the 3rd example sentence which reads, 'Las faldas en esta tienda son bonitas' the English translation given is, 'They have nice skirts in this shop'. I thought that this would translate as, 'The skirts in this shop are nice'. The translation given would be 'Tienen faldas bonitas en esta tienda' in Spanish wouldn't it'? Is it an error here Inma or does it not have to be literal translation?
Gracias
Clara
Hi, I was a bit surprised to see this use of "gustar" as none of the books I have mention this usage i.e. Barron's 501 verbs, shows only that this verb is used in the third person, etc. Would it be a Iberian usage? I am in Canada and study Latin American Spanish [looking forward to that distinction in your program:) -- any news on that?]
Thank you. Nicole
Please, help me understand the difference:
Me alegro de que hayas viajado a diferentes países.
I am pleased that you have travelled to different countries.
To me the english deffinition appears to be equal to the present perfect "has viajado". Is it that there is doubt that you have actually travelled to different countries? or....is there something else that needs to be read into the use of subjunctive here.
Hola a todos
I just found this sentence on Kwiziq:
'He estado de viaje y me ha encantado todo'
So, with de I guess roughly this means 'I have been doing travelling'
But please can someone explain...
1) The differences between using 'he estado de viajar' vs 'he estado viajando'?
2) And can we use 'he estado de +infinitive' with all verbs?
Saludos
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