Spanish language Q&A Forum

My question isn't about demonstrative pronouns but it's in relation to the translation of one of the example sentences describing their usage. 

In the 3rd example sentence which reads, 'Las faldas en esta tienda son bonitas' the English translation given is, 'They have nice skirts in this shop'. I thought that this would translate as, 'The skirts in this shop are nice'. The translation given would be 'Tienen faldas bonitas en esta tienda' in Spanish wouldn't it'? Is it an error here Inma or does it not have to be literal translation?

Gracias

Clara 

[A comment, not really a question]: It is interesting that you are using the infinitive construction here after "recomendar": "...nos han recomendado poner suelo de madera"; (instead, I put: "han recomendado que pongamos suelo de madera"). My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin - admittedly an oldish, 2004 edition) discusses the well known rule: "Use the subjunctive when there is a change of subject between the two portions of the sentence" - and it lists verbs which are exceptions. 'Recomendar' is not actually given as a clear-cut exception, but the book says that this verb is in a transitional state - where the infinitive construction is "slowly creeping into" written Spanish. It adds that it would be better for non-Spaniards to stick with the subjunctive in these particular circumstances, just to be sure..... I am sure you do have a lesson on this specific point; I look forward to seeing what it says about various verbs.

Could you explain 'dime' for me please. Would this be classed as an Imperative? I'm thinking especially of sentences like, 'Dime algo'

Gracias

Clara

From the above lesson it is not fully clear when one would use "no solo...sino" and when one would use "no solo...sino que". Is the rule similar to the one mentioned in this lesson: Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) whereby "If we need a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino, then we need to add "que" after sino."?

What is the difference between these 2? Both are expressing action in progress but I'd like to be more clear about when we would use each.

Hola,

The translation is given as "You could have told me before."

My step by step translation is "You could have to me it said to me earlier / before."

Can you explain why to "to me" is repeated?

Thanks. John

I have the worst time remembering which one is what. I get ese/esa and esto/esta mixed up all the time. Any suggestions on how to remember them?

Aquello/aquella isn't so hard to remember since it's so different

Can I use it to say: we were hopinng that he would do ...?