Spanish language Q&A Forum

So the difference between cuál/cuáles and el cual/la cual/los cuales/las cuales is that cuál and cuáles are not preceded by articles and will only be used in questions, whereas el cual/la cual/los cuales/las cuales are preceded by articles and will not be used in questions?

A su vecino le robaron la moto el otro día.

(Le) robaron la moto el otro día a su vecino.

They stole his neighbour's bike the other day.

My brain wants to translate this as: 

The other day they stole the bike for his neighbor.   (su=his, her, your, its, their)

My point being that I think of the indirect object pronoun (le) as to/for him/her your/it

The word "for" being the key point that confuses me in this case, I would guess.  

I would think the sentence would use "de" and be "Robaron el moto el otro día de su vecino." and not have the indirect object pronoun.

Help please!

My understanding was that the accent falls on the penultimate syllable unless another syllable is accented. Given that where does the accent fall on “peinar”?  Is it not split into pe in ar?  

hi room and experts

Please clarify why 'tener  + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object,  whereas  this rule does not apply in  'haber + participio cases'

For example  -  Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)

He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)

Please could you tell me, how would you know which to use here-

‘Yo no he sido’- it wasn’t me 

Or

‘Yo no fui’- it wasn’t me

Thank you

In the quiz question: "Todos los estudiantes son estadounidenses ________. All the students are from the United States except us." the question refuses any answer with "nosotras". Surely "nosotras" should be as equally possible as "nosotros" in this response, or am I misunderstanding?

He visto = present perfect that is not finish still in today continuing. Why in above translate do say to as mean  that saw that is v2?? 

i have two questions for this one first why there is an a after venir is it coz its 

equivalent to be able to ?

second why five is las not la five is a number singular thx in advance for the support gracias