Spanish language Q&A Forum

When a noun is used to describe the weather, hacer is used  but when an adjective or participle is used then the verb is estar: En otoño, hace viento -v- en otoño está ventoso. 

Pero why is ser used for: en otoño es incomodo? Or should it be está?

Why is this wrong:  Mi abuela le entretiene mucho hacer punto?

Cuando un hotel de cinco estrellas se te quede demasiado pequeño

I don't understand the function of 'se' in this phrase. Is it really incorrect to omit it?

I've checked the lesson on quedar(se) but don't see the rule here.

Gracias

This topic requires a better explanation.  There is a question where one person talks about the condition of another’s car.  Both speaker and listener know the car’s condition.  According to my reading of the lesson (perhaps mistaken), this means the subjunctive is used.  So, I chose funcione but funciona was the correct choice.  So, doubt or uncertainty does not seem to be the deciding factor when considering the use of the subjunctive after aunque.  Thanks.

I don't understand how the text is "periphrasis" - in a roundabout way. How might it have been written other than the way it was?

In one question, I was tasked to translate "I want to buy it for him."     I selected " Quiero se lo comprar."   and was marked wrong.   I understand that one could say "Quiero comprárselo." , which was the correct answer.   But I always thought that you could have the pronouns attached to the infinitive or put them in front.   

It took me three times reading this before I got the real drift of the story. Very funny LOL. Necesitamos más colas sutiles como esta para que la cuenta no menee al perro. 

Here are two phrases from the text, both giving advice.

1 Seguramente sabrás que en primavera deberías consumir espárragos trigueros, guisantes y habas.  NO ARTICLE

2 Si fuera tú, pondría ingredientes como la lechuga, las endibias, las espinacas, etc.  ARTICLES.

In answering a previous question about articles, Sylvia wrote:

In summary, the choice of using or not using the definite article depends on the linguistic function of the phrase within the sentence, whether it denotes a specific entity (requiring the article) or describes a general quality or manner (where the article may be omitted).

Am I correct that the use of 'como' in phrase 2 triggers a specific entity and thus the article?

Gracias

I'm having the same problem. Suddenly my lessons include non-european Spanish. Help!