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david c.A1KwizIQ community member

When I translate this with other programs and ask native speakers, this is completely incorrect.My research tells me that he visto means I have seen, NOT I saw. Maybe this is correct in some countries, but I haven't found any native speaker in the U.S.A. who translates these simple past sentences (i.e. I saw, they saw) with the use of haber. They are simply vi, viste, vio, vimos, and vieron.

Asked 8 years ago

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Tommy S.B1KwizIQ community member

.I don't understand your answer. I used present subjunctive yo form and the answer was in the indicative

Asked 8 years ago

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Andy E.C1KwizIQ Q&A regular contributor

What's more common in spoken Peninsular Spanish - with or without the article?

Asked 8 years ago

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Meghan Y.B2KwizIQ community member

How would you say "I will be here for 4 months?"

Asked 8 years ago

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Steve B.C1KwizIQ community member

hubo/había with a set time

“Maria told us there was a meeting at 4”

hubo is incorrect here, but I thought with a set time it became ‘hubo’? What am I missing?

Asked 8 years ago

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K. M.B1KwizIQ Q&A regular contributor

I see that your tip says that the degree of probability is the same for indicative and subjunctive. Thst they are interchangeable.

I had never heard that before.So, I can retract my question.

Asked 8 years ago

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K. M.B1KwizIQ Q&A regular contributor

With “No estoy segura pero tal vez __ un coche nuevo” both compramos and compremos are considered correct.

There seems to be a lot of doubt in this sentence. What would trigger only the subjunctive?

Thank you. K

Asked 8 years ago

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Gary D.C1KwizIQ community member

Maths? Not math?

Asked 8 years ago

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Daniel L.A2KwizIQ community member

Inanimate Objects#Why does it say "You never use le and les to replace inanimate objects." When other sources say that spanish does not distinguish between inanimacy.

Asked 8 years ago

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Daniel L.A2KwizIQ community member

Inanimate Objects.

Asked 8 years ago

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