Spanish language Q&A Forum

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When is one preferred over the other?

I know the -- if after a noun is doesn't make since with " which or that,"  then use " de que" if you intend it to be " that"

But like what about the other times?

I swear it almost seems like other than what I said above, it's interchangeable.

Thanks.

When is de used after faltar?

I've read it's mostly a formal construction?

Do you mean that *ese* is used when both conditions are true or just one?

There seem be so many ways to say this in Spanish: "fuimos a dar un paseo" is one I hear a lot.  "Hemos paseado" (or "hemos caminado") translates as "we have walked" rather than "went for,.".   It's very confusing! 

Those of us who are old enough to have been taught grammar and parsing will be familiar with the concept of indirect questions. Maybe if that could be added to the explanation it would be clearer than "at what moment in time". (For some of us "indirect question" will be more familiar than "indirect interrogative sentence" because of what we were taught at school.)

Also  "A ver" is, I believe, one of those impossible-to-translate phrases and the translation "Let's see"  might not immediately make native-English-speakers  think of indirect questions. When I thought about it some more I thought that "I wonder when..." might be clearer

As somebody already pointed out, if you're not aiming to do much writing, this point is really a marginal concern and I admit that I'm tempted to ignore it.

I used all CAPS for the title of the picture as the hint suggested... I didn't realize it was only for capitalizing the first letter of each word. Could be clearer. Thanks.

I believe that according to RAE, the vosotros form of both verbs should have a tilde – creáis.

This problem is in addition to the yo form problem others have mentioned.

Also, when the subjunctive is used is it always part of the cuando clause?