Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."

A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."

I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.

So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?

I understand except for the last word "queráis    ".  I was expecting to see " queréis   " for the "you want" at the end.

Looking up queráis, I see that it is the present subjunctive and have read that it is used if there is a change in the subject.

I can't see a change in subject. The first part of the sentence has "you" as subject ans so does the second part.

I expect that I've missed something crucial here so please help me to understand.

Thanks.

Thank you so much for this detailed explanation Inma. It's greatly appreciated. I hope it's fair to say that I wish that  Leísmo/Loísmo/Laísmo didn't exist 🙄... another thing for my old brain to try to remember. ;))

Take a look at the first sentence above (It’s Below) but this time with a subject.

Carmen y Rosa llaman a la puerta.

Gracias,

Shirley. 

"Tardé unas pocas horas en hacerlo" is right as well, isn't it?

The examples all list a couple actions that are being requested or suggested.  Would it be just as normal to use it when there is just a single action being requested?  Like "Pones los papeles sobre la mesa" would sound as normal as a command as "Pon los papeles sobre la mesa"?  As a non-native speaker, if I talked that way would people think I don't know the imperative?