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5,788 questions • 9,468 answers • 945,653 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,788 questions • 9,468 answers • 945,653 learners
Why is lo the answer if its referring to them? Is el trabajo what lo is referring to?
Your approach to address this subject is confusing. Please consider rewriting the teaching or add a new teaching in ONE lesson addressing all possibilities. Include all possible questions and answers about what date,day, month, year etc.
I miss the rationale behind this. is this something to learn 'by heart'? as in, just learn these exceptions and you're good to go?... or is there some reasoning, eg. that without the accent it would be pronounced wrong.. this because of ?
The noun "búho" [= eagle owl] is an illustration of the way in which a 'silent h' has no bearing on whether or not there is a hiatus. At first glance, foreigners might think [incorrectly] that it should form two syllables *without* the need for a tilde.
There is another lesson about using the pretérito perfecto after esperar to indicate a completed action in the future. Is there any difference in sentence construction between these two cases or would intent have to be discerned entirely from context?
No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso
Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.
Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?
Is it too simplistic to say that:
Sentir is followed by a Noun or que, and
Sentirse is followed by an Adjective/Adverb or como.
Now that I write it out, perhaps it's not easier to remember.
John Nolan
Hola Inma,
The sentence given was "resultados terapéuticos en el dolor de estómago, cuello, espalda y pierna." In the A2 "Everything hurts!" exercise for this week there was a sentence "También, tengo dolor de estómago y de pies," where the "de" was repeated. I rationalised this as being way of saying that I have pain from / of stomach and from / of feet. I can't understand why the "de" isn't repeated in the example above from this B1 exercise.
Can you help please
Saludos
John
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