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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,619 questions • 8,965 answers • 871,250 learners
Why is costar used without a pronoun to express something people in general find difficult, while other words DO use a pronoun to express general things, as explained in the "The impersonal se in Spanish" lesson?
Lesson - The impersonal se in Spanish:
Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one
Una vez alcanzado su tamaño máximo, la larva se prepara para.....
Should this be una vez alcanzada as it refers to the feminine noun larva ?
Gracias
Since the question cannot be deleted (or I don't know how), let this comment stay here but I'll use the opportunity to tell you all to keep up with the excellent work as the few days I've been on here have really helped me better my Spanish skills!
First off, a minor suggestion wrt this lesson to break the ice: ;)
When you are talking about the position of 'se', you are in fact referring to the position of BOTH 'se' and a corresponding direct object pronoun. You might want to note this in the explanations somewhere.
Now, my real question:
With a participle, does the combo of se & direct object pronoun HAVE to be attached at the end, or this is just an option? "Se la estamos decorando" and "Estamos decorandosela" are both grammatically correct and semantically equivalent, right? Or are we allowed to say "Se la estamos decorando" only because we have two verbs next to each other?
PS
I agree with the other poster who pointed out that these agglutination rules totally warrant a separate lesson.
Why isn't "No me gusta comer el chocolate?"
As in, why don't we use the article
Can you explain why the cake is called 'tarta' in the second and third sentences, but 'pastel' in the fourth?
In the question
¡________ basura hay en esta casa!
Que mucha was an option offered that I chose and was marked wrong in favour of another option cuánta.
Que mucha ... translated in online dictionaries just fine.
Is there a difference ?
Why was "partido" (for "game") the correct usage in the first part of the last sentence, but then "juego" (for "game") was correct in the latter part of that same sentence?
Pati Ecuamiga
In one of the questions it says headaches.... plural, but the answer is given as singular version of docker??
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