Spanish language Q&A Forum

A couple of quizzes ago i was marked wrong for putting the object pronouns in front of the verbal structure. Unfortunately I can't get back to that quiz now to check, but I was sure they could go either before the whole verbal structure of be added onto the gerund/infinitive. The correction on my answer was to put the pronouns at the end of the infinitive/gerund.

My answer “él tuviera” was marked wrong. How is it wrong to include the stated pronoun for clarity?

Hola a todos. I primarily use SpanishDict.com for my Spanish-English dictionary. Has anyone run across other options you like for LatAm Spanish? Gracias de antemano por sus sugerencias. 

- Ella cree que habrá consecuencias.

- Creía que era una bicicleta por participante. 

Because the subject in the two examples above believed/thought that …(creer que) …, I would have used the subjunctive in the second clauses. I equated this to querer que and esperar que both being followed by the subjunctive. What am I missing?

I've come across an online site that made a statement about Spanish adjectives of nationality that end in an accented e, i.e., é. However after poring through my various resources, I haven't been able to find such an adjective that ends in é, with an accent. I believe the English nationality of Burkina Faso is Burkinabé, but that is a noun. I need adjectives.

Do you have any suggestions? I hope you can assist me in this matter.

I look forward to contributing to the answers that others have, too.

Thank you in advance.

Jim K.

I recommend linking to Difference between cuándo and cuando in Spanish (with and without an accent) as a related topic.

[Reposted so as to be visible in the Dictation]

I think I can understand why "... se puede ver a las ballenas jorobadas retozando, coqueteando ..." is correct - [meaning: "... one can see the humpback whales ...", or "... you can see ..."] - after reading your Kwiziq lessons " Using se debe/se puede to say You must/you can (impersonal sentences) "  [number 6933] and " Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one " [number 5132].

However - under 'Your Practice', you recommend the lesson " Forming the Spanish passive with se (la pasiva refleja) " [number 6089] - which seems more consistent with this answer: "... se pueden ver las ballenas jorobadas"? (i.e. with 'pueden' in the plural, and without the "a" [before the 'las']). Would this^ be a correct way of saying "... the humpback whales can be seen ..."?

He visto = present perfect that is not finish still in today continuing. Why in above translate do say to as mean  that saw that is v2?? 

I think I can understand why "... se puede ver a las ballenas jorobadas retozando, coqueteando ..." is correct - [meaning: "... one can see the humpback whales ...", or "... you can see ..."] - after reading your Kwiziq lessons " Using se debe/se puede to say You must/you can (impersonal sentences) "  [number 6933] and " Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one " [number 5132].

However - under 'Your Practice', you recommend the lesson " Forming the Spanish passive with se (la pasiva refleja) " [number 6089] - which seems more consistent with this answer: "... se pueden ver las ballenas jorobadas"? (i.e. with 'pueden' in the plural, and without the "a" [before the 'las']). Would this^ be a correct way of saying "... the humpback whales can be seen ..."?

“pasamos a la nariz” is translated as “let’s do the nose”.

Is this correct?