Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the examples using past actions in the main clause, either the pretérito imperfecto or the pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo are used. However, in the explanation it says the pretérito indefinido or the plusucmaperfecto.

My question and answer: How would you say "For many years I have done Tai Chí"?  I picked "Desde hace muchos años hago Taichí.  But it says the correct answer is Desde much años hago Taichí.  

Looking at the lesson that the link takes me too, I only see to use Desde when the time is specific like 1 year.  

Please help.

Tu tiene   should be correct   but only   tiene was accepted as correct.  I  have learnt that both should be accpeted.

Please can you verify this.

Is it because it is being used as an adjective in this sentence. Thx

Hola a todos,

Solo decir, Feliz Navidad y próspero año! 

Gracias por todo 

Clara

I found the speaker very hard to understand.

Why does 'I have a garden' translate as 'Tengo jardín'? How do you know when to omit the definite article?

One question on a quiz I just took was something like 

 _________ menos me impresiona del cuadro es el color. (What impresses me least about this picture is the color.) 

I entered 'Lo que el,' which was wrong.  The correct response was 'Lo que.'  To me, this seems to mean 'What impresses me less..., ' and it strikes me as a tricky combination of the lessons about 'lo que, etc', and 'el menos/la menos etc.'  The lesson that I was referred to for review was the 'lo que etc.' lesson, but I found no example of it used immediately followed by a superlative.  

It's been my understanding that an article is required to form a superlative (as in - menos=less, el/la/los/las/lo menos=the least).  So it seems that the superlative article gets dropped immediately after 'lo que?'  What if the sentence had been constructed slightly differently, 'Lo que me impresiona el menos del cuadro es el color?' 

Could it be used with he comprado instead of compro?