Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, just want to let you know that this is the third mini-quiz that I've come across on my recommended list that has no questions.  It just says "1 of 0".

In one quiz there was a sentence:   Hace calor.  Saldré al jardin un rato.   Voy a salir  sounds more natural and is what I hear more often from South Americans. Is the use of the future tense more common in Spain?

    I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.

    The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."

    Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.

    Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una). 

    Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:

"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.

There is another chapter on using qué + noun + verb. ¡Qué lento va esa coche! = ¡Qué coche tan lento! Is this the same and correct ?

I find that both are the same? May someone point out the differences?Thanks 

I chose the correct answer and the quiz changed my after...

i read from another note that

Cuando + the present subjunctive vs Cuando + the present indicative in Spanish

It states that we use cuando+present subjunctive for future events.

But in this notes, it says we need to use cuando+past subjunctive.

Dijo que me llamaría cuando llegara al hotel. (past subjunctive)

= dijo que me llamaría cuando llegue al hotel (present subjunctive)

Are both the same? what is the difference that we choose one over another?