Spanish language Q&A Forum

there is another chapter where "Having done something" with the action as subject or direct object of a sentence using El Infinitivo Compuesto (= haber + participle)

How does it differ from using infinitive?

Fumar es malo para la salud

Haber fumado es malo para la salud

if I were to guess, I am guessing that using el infinitive compuesto is that, the action was indeed being carried out where as using infinitive is just a general statement. the person we are warning regarding smoking is bad, did not smoke.

Whereas if the person indeed smoke, we will say haber fumado es malo para la salud

it seems like luego de is the only difference between LA and Europe spainish?

there are 2 separate lesson on this verb poder with the meaning of could, able to do something or not.

May I check if my understanding is correct?

Perfect tense and indefinido both means not being able to something, did not manage to do it, and we saw the result which is able or not able to. They have the same meaning but just that different time period will trigger each of them separately.

Whereas, imperfect tense is about the action not able or being able to do at a specific time but we did not know the ending. 

Hope someone could help clarify. 

Thanks

¿Dónde_____una floristería, por favor?

I answered "está" but it's saying it's "hay" even though the examples shown in the lesson show

¿Dónde está el parque?

Why was I incorrect?

Could we use "el" in this context?  No possessive is used with body parts; it seemed that a constitution is a part of government, and not "owned" by it.

the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.

but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.

please correct me if I am wrong.

can we say ha venido a quedarse instead of using para?

Siempre he oído Día de LOS Muertos.