Spanish language Q&A Forum

Are desde and de interchangeable. For ex, I saw him from a distance. Would both work?

Lo vi desde una distancia. 

Just wondering what triggers the subjunctive in this example sentence from the lesson:

Se trata de que nos reunamos para pasar un buen rato

Thanks.

Hola Inma:

Are these phrases interchangeable?

         Lo+ Adv/Adj + que + verb

         Que tan /cuan + Adv/ Adj

Let's use test question #3 for these purposes:

         "¡____ es ese monumento!"

Of course the correct answer is:

          "¡Lo feo que es ese             monumento!"

With regard to this structure (Lo+ Adv/Adj + que + verb) the lesson states it is used to express surprise/admiration/disappointment about how something/someone performs an action or about what someone/something is like.

 The lesson for the structure (Que tan /cuan + Adv/ Adj) states that it is used to ASK about the degree or extent of a specific quality. Yet one of the example is not a question:

 "Carlos, muéstrale a Valentina qué tan bien bailas merengue." The phrase is being used in regard to a "specific quality," i.e., "... how well... ."

Question:for these purposes,  is not ugliness a specific quality. (a) if so, could we not also use the structure (Que tan /cuan + Adv/ Adj): ¡Qué tan feo  es ese monumento! Thank you in advance.

May I ask why do you need to use imperfect tense for this sentence: Después de hacer el check-in, he comprado algo de ropa en la boutique porque no traía nada conmigo. 

I guess if we use prétérito perfect for the whole story it should be it as well.

In an A1 writing exercise about ordering at a restaurant, I encountered the phrase "How can I help you?" with the hint "Lit. What do you wish?" I was not prepared with an answer so I learned a new phrase!

Are the phrases interchangeable? 

Thank you,

Allysen  

I have to comment again on English word choices. In the English interpretation of Yo hago la comida por las mañanas, wouldn't "I make" be more appropriate than "I prepare?" Because wouldn't "yo preparo" be the Spanish for "I prepare?"

In "solucionar," I wonder if "to resolve" or "to solve" would be a closer translation than "to fix."

Hello Lawless Spanish,

I JUST found your excellent web site. I've been using various means to learn Spanish over the last 1.5 years, but your site seems to be the best resource so far. I'm still at A1 however.

Here's a thought that I'd be interested to know your opinion on. Often while reading an English interpretation of a Spanish phrase or sentence, I think I would like to have the more literal translation rather than the Spanish being re-worded in order to be a grammatical English sentence. Because I don't care about English grammar or want my English reinforced when I'm trying to understand how a Spanish speaker constructs their thoughts linguistically. Do you know what I mean?

Take the example from the first exercise I happened to land on,  Corro para estar en forma. It would be helpful to see a more literal translation, then I get a better idea of the words and structure a Spanish speaker uses. In the example, "estar en forma" is re-interpreted as "to keep fit." That is quite a departure from the literal. I think an English speaker is quite capable of recognizing a more literal translation "to be in form" because it is identical to the common English phrase "to be in shape." So while I know authors are trying to be helpful with English re-interpretations, I often feel cheated out of knowing a more literal construction and wording, and in the process authors may even be making less-accurate interpretations (such as "to keep fit" instead of the better "to be in shape."). What do you think?  

Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")  

However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo): 

"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"

why are the translations: 

1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted

while the translations:

2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?

I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?

Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.