Spanish language Q&A Forum

¡Me encantó esto! 

Muchísimas gracias a Ana y a todo el equipo por este fantástico homenaje al maravilloso Miguel Delibes Setién :))

Saludos 

Clara 

Hola Inma,

The text of the lesson has been corrected to "riais" but one question is still showing "riáis" as an option [and not showing "riais."]

The question is "Es saludable que [sonráis] a menudo."

In the example:

"Los que hayan reservado con antelación pueden ir a esa ventanilla"

why is it 'hayan' and not 'han'?

I, too, would like an answer to Nicole's question, please.

In the first  example above viz. A   el no imporatba lo que hubiera dicho

it reads as if I really had said something and if so, why not indicative?

I am having some difficulties with this sentence: Los empleados de la tienda se quedaron perplejos.

Why is quedarse used here and not quedar? I went back to the lesson that deals with the differences and therein both are used with an adjective or participle to express the result of an action (=quedar) or change (=quedarse). For quedar + adjective, it is also written that the meaning is rather "to end up", and I feel like it fits well in the sentence above: they ended up perplexed due to what Beru did. 

Could both be correct in this context?

Thanks!

I noticed that nunca goes after nosotros,yo,él/ella, but not estoy. Why is that

Shouldn't it ne present simple no sabemos?