Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola! Yo tengo una pregunta- agua is feminine but the sentence says “el agua es clara”. Is this an exception? Are there others like this? Thank you! 

en el texto..

.. Si nunca visitaste México, hacelo en estas fechas. Creo que la vas a pasar muy bien...

questions

1.  hacelo .. here does ´lo´  refer to ´viaje´ or something else ? 

2. Shouldn´t it be ´hazlo´ instead of ´hacelo´

3. .. la vas a pasar..    what is ´la´ referring to?   Don´t we usually say ´lo pasar bien´?

gracias como siempre

I said this phrase was incorrect as I though the a in ave would change the una to an un.

However I was marked wrong and apparently it is a correct phrase.

Is this another exception to the rule?

Does «media naranja» (soulmate) literally mean "orange sock"? How did this term for "soulmate" develop in Spanish culture?

Hi,

For the sections "Eran aún mejores que..." and then after this "...en mis sueños.", I believe it might be a bit confusing to separate these parts of the same sentence as the use of the imperfect or preterite tense for the 'Ser' in this sentence relies on the context of to when this action refers. Just seeing the prompt "They were even better than...", I assumed that it was referring to the actual concert, which you would use the preterite of 'Ser' (Fueron) as it is a single and defined event, however when you see "...in my dreams." you then see it was referring to multiple, repeated instances so you would hence use the imperfect tense (Eran).

Perhaps I am mistaken?

Regardless, these quizzes are very good for practical and realistic Spanish usage.

Thanks,

Angus.

The lesson specifically states that we don’t use the gerund as we might in English.  Then the gerund is used: He dejado de fumar. Am I missing something? Nowhere in the lesson does it say in certain instances we would use the gerund. Please explain.

Seems like this should say only compound words from 30th, or something similar. Thanks.

We were told to form an adverb you take the feminine form and add 'mente' so it would effectively be 'Amente' So why does it say fuertamente is wrong, it's fuertEmente? 

We were told to form an adverb you take the feminine form and add 'mente' so it would effectively be 'Amente' So why does it say fuertamente is wrong, it's fuertEmente? 

I put inmediatamente, it said wrong, it's inmediamente. So next time I put inmediamente and it said wrong, it's inmediatamente! Which is it?