Two Complete Sentences Separated by a CommaI have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía
no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They
haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina
ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado
flores.
Cristina must have been a
good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
What is the difference between deber in El pretérito indefinido + El infinitivo (compuesto) and deber in El condicional simple + El infinitivo compuesto? Both lessons say they mean Should have
Me han recomendado que ________ a un abogado. Someone has recommended that I hire a lawyer.contratecontratarcontrataríacontrataré
Shouldn't an valid answer option include "Laura es "?
There is nothing in the hint to suggest that that is only a hint.
Hola,
The answer was "Voy a pedirle que me lleve a su casa" as translation of "I am going to ask her to take me home."
Why is the indirect object pronoun "le" used in this sentence and not "la" the direct object pronoun? I'm wondering whether it is something to do with the way that pedir is used e.g. "ask it of her."
Can you help?
Thanks John
In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.
I have seen a lot of sentences like the examples below:
1. Todavía no han llegado, su avión debe haberse retrasado.
They haven't arrived yet, their flight must have had a delay.
2. Cristina ha debido de ser una buena profesora, sus estudiantes le han comprado flores.
Cristina must have been a good teacher, her students bought her some flowers.
I respect that Spanish uses punctuation differently, in some cases, from the way English uses punctuation. However, the Spanish sentences and the English translations use a comma to separate the two sentences in each example (these examples were taken from a quiz on Kwiziq). For the Spanish, I've checked RAE and I cannot understand why these two sentences are joined by a comma when it seems they should be separated by a period or a semicolon (or even possibly adding a connector or conjunction to join them). For the English translation, in American English we would have to somehow separate these two complete sentences with some form of punctuation (period or semicolon). I have also seen similar constructions in other writing, but not usually in newspapers or academic writing. If you could provide an explanation, I would appreciate it. Thank you.
¿Bajo las AFFIRMATIVE COMMANDS, no debería ser "tráelos"?
Hola
With the expression pasarselo bien, I have seen examples elsewhere written "la estoy pasando bien" (ie no reflexive pronoun and a feminine direct object pronoun) Please could you explain what the "la" refers to and if both expressions are interchangeable?
Gracias
Dee
No me gustan los tatuajes y por eso no tengo ________.
Shouldn't it be "ningunos" because tatuajes is masculine and plural?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level