Spanish language Q&A Forum

 Since the preposition “a” as a personal “a” wouldn’t “les” also be a correct?

Juan y tú proveísteis

Included in the possible answers in the mini-quiz are:

1. Ni un bocadillo ni un burrito me apetece. (Correct)

2. Me apetece ni un bocadillo ni un burrito. (Incorrect)

Can you please explain how placing "Me apetece" at the beginning of the sentence instead of the end changes the meaning and makes it incorrect?

Many thanks.

Can I use it without and with que interchangeably?

Here is an example of something I have asked about before and have sent you a screen print.  Unfortunately, the screen print was undecipherable for you.  Here is a different approach.

B1 Pronouns
Reciprocal verbs in Spanish and position of the reflexive pronoun

Which is the correct sentence for "We can't marry each other"?

As you can see, there are two correct answers, but that is not what is asked in the question by indicating the, which would mean one answer.  This is something which occurs quite often in these lessons.

In the sentence 'Les amenecé seriamente' I don't understand why the indirect object pronoun 'Les' is used. I would have thought it would have been a direct object pronoun ie 'Los' or 'Las'. Are 'they' not the direct object of the threatening? I seem to often have a problem with this. It's ok when it's a straightforward 'I gave the present TO her' for example where it is quite clear but in sentences like the one above I get very confused as it often seems the indirect object pronoun is used. Any advice greatly appreciated.

I understand that saying:

"Hoy, hace mucho calor" and "Hoy hace frio" are both correct.

Is it correct to use the adjective, "caliente" to describe the weather?

And, if so, would you say: "Esta mucho caliente." or "Hace mucho caliente." ?

Gracias!