There is a beautiful song, "Yolanda," by the Cuban singer/songwriter Pablo Milanés. The construction of one sentence using faltar confounds me: "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." Why is faltar conjugated in second person singular? I'm having trouble fitting this usage in with any of the lesson examples. What am I missing? Thank you!
Hola Mary Jane
I know the song very well, one of my favourites...
When Pablo Milanés says "Si me faltaras no voy a morirme." he means "If you are not around/If I am without you, I am not going to die"
The way the verb faltar works here is:
Si tú me faltaras (If I am without you)
Si Yolanda me faltara (If I am without Yolanda)
Si mi madre me faltara (If I am without my mum)
Si mis hijos me faltaran (If I am without my sons)
So, you can see that the verb is agreeing always with the person/s not around.
This is the same as with the verb gustar.
I hope this clarified your doubt.
Thank you, Inma. I think with a little work, I can wrap my head around this. Obviously it confuses me like "gustar" congugated in any person other than third confuses me! Here's a token of my appreciation, another beautiful Pablo Milanés song with "faltar." https://youtu.be/53Ko0ZUjovE
¡Qué canción tan bonita!
Gracias por compartir Mary Jane :)
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