Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

Here is my train of thought. "Ayer estuve en un concierto:" "Yesterday" requires the pretérito indefinido because it refers to a completed action at a time in the past, and the verb is estar because it is referring to a location; hence estuve.

However I am stuck with "Fue en San Juan:" Is San Juan not a location? If so, would it require the verb estar rather than ser? 

It would be great if you could explain this.

Many thanks.

While experimenting with nunca in negative sentences for a while, my instinct kept telling me to include the definite article in one particular construction, where it would not be required in any of the others. 

ie. Never eat sweets before dinner (imperative)

= No comas nunca LOS dulces antes de la cena

Could you clarify for me 1) if the article is actually required here at all, or 2) if it could be used correctly as an option.

In the Superbike translation exercise, you translated "We'll always remember this day" as "Vamos a acordarnos siempre de este día".  Why is "Vamos a recordar siempre de este dia" not also correct ?

Is it correct that "quedar" can also mean "to be (located)"?

E.g.  In a supermarket you might ask "¿Dónde quedan los cereales?"

Hi, 

In the example sentence, 'Nadie ha traído regalos a la fiesta', please could you tell me why ha, which I think is from the auxiliary verb 'haber', is used? 

Thanks, Clara.

This sentence must surely read:

María got cross when Marcos arrived home very late.

One question was ____________  mucha niebla. Hay or esta.  I used esta wrong.  In fact mucha is never even translated.   So why is it Hay, not esta and why isn’t mucha translated 

I wish the guy giving the dictation does not read como si fuera SINGING. He also does not ENUNCIATE the words whereby it is so difficult to understand!