Ser vs Estar confusion This article talks about using El Presente to express general facts, simple enough...
... however my qualm is with the use of Ser vs Estar. My understanding was that ser would be used to generally describe things which don’t change over a prolonged period of time, eg. Relationships, jobs, generally accepted facts etc.
Therefore I was terribly confused when the correct response to one of your questions was:
“Francia está en Europa”.
Whereas the example on this page states:
“Roma es la capital de Italia.”
Both of these seem like general facts with a geographical theme... where do I draw the line?
Apologies for the essay! Haha
Hi,
Prior to this lesson I was reading about the subjuntive case of verbs. It seems that in the sentence above, the subjunctive case has been used. It does not appear to satisfy the WEIRDO requirements.
Can you please tell me why 'ella se visite' has been used and not 'ella se visita'?
Thanks.
Colin
I know 'para' usually goes in front of verbs in the infinitive form. When does 'por' go in front of verbs in the infinitive form?
Pretty much a waste of listening time . . .
In a textbook a sentence was given as:
“ Es muy gordo; come más que dos hombres ordinaries.”
My question is why is it not más de because of the “dos” being a quantitative factor. Is it a comparison?
This article talks about using El Presente to express general facts, simple enough...
... however my qualm is with the use of Ser vs Estar. My understanding was that ser would be used to generally describe things which don’t change over a prolonged period of time, eg. Relationships, jobs, generally accepted facts etc.
Therefore I was terribly confused when the correct response to one of your questions was:
“Francia está en Europa”.
Whereas the example on this page states:
“Roma es la capital de Italia.”
Both of these seem like general facts with a geographical theme... where do I draw the line?
Apologies for the essay! Haha
Hola,
(Sorry to revert to English!) Would the above sentence still make sense if 'la' was inserted before 'casa'? It would then be consistent with the other similar examples, which would make it easier for me to remember.
Gracias y saludos,
Colin
The second time she says "guía" she pronounces it "Este ría". Is this common, and is there a rule for when to do this? Thanks.
In the 1st person and 3rd person singular in the given examples I notice that the words from the verb 'to be able to', i.e 'could' and 'couldn't' are used. In sentences like these would we just have to be aware that these words are implied?
Thank you
Clari.
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