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5,630 questions • 8,991 answers • 873,748 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,630 questions • 8,991 answers • 873,748 learners
Is 'piso' used to refer to a flat only in Spain?
Hola Inma,
-Juan le compró a su mujer un diamante. -Le habrá comprado un diamante pero no le hace ni caso.In the above example of yours, is it correct to use le compraría /le habría comprado un diamante pero no le hace ni caso, since le compró is a past accion.
I' m really confused with these two lessons: using el Futuro Simple / Futuro Perfecto to express objection,disbelief and using el Conticional simple / Conticional Perfecto to express objection,disbelief.
Muchas gracias!
Ελισάβετ
Why is it "pero esta muy fría" instead of "pero está muy fría"? Also, why is it "está protegida" instead of "es protegida"?
One question was ____________ mucha niebla. Hay or esta. I used esta wrong. In fact mucha is never even translated. So why is it Hay, not esta and why isn’t mucha translated
Hi,
The two problems with use of English posted some time ago are still not fixed. Hence, I'm still struggling to get to grips with this lesson.
"If I went to the hairdresser's" in English means; "If I were to go". They are equivqlent.
Similarly. "If he had an accident" is equivalent to " if he were to have an accident".
In both cases, the first sentence is common usage. The second using the the subjunctive is very uncommon in everyday English.
In the sentence:
"En mi opinión, debemos reducir su consumo para dormir mejor."
The instruction tells you to use the verb "disminuir." ??
Is it possible to add this list to my notebook?
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