Spanish language Q&A Forum

It seems to indicate that:

bien and mal go with estar

bueno and malo go with ser

but when I follow that as a "rule" I get it wrong. What am I missing please? What is the "reason" either goes with whatever?

consider: 

(1) she has made many sacrifices for her children

(2) she has made many books for her children

why

in (1) "for" --> por

in (2) "for" --> para

Your article says: "In most places El Pretérito Indefinido will be used with "nunca" and "siempre" and even with time expressions which have a connection to the present, such as: hoy, este mes, este año, esta noche, esta mañana, esta semana..."

On a quiz, I used the indefinido in a question with a "time expression which has a connection to the present" (i.e. "hoy") and got the question wrong-- it was corrected to the perfecto. 

Is there something wrong with what I did? Are the quizes looking for peninsular or latin american answers? 

It should be......how many people are there in Barcelona........I am English, this sounds more natural to me

Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...

Why the speaker can see him/herself in this time frame? It's obvious that the speaker is talking about someone else.

Thank u so much

I had searched for “Subjunctive” and came across something entitled “It’s complicated explaining the Subjunctive”. It seemed to be what I was looking for, so I clicked on it. However, I was taken to a lesson on facíl/difícil. Can you correct the link? Basically, I’m trying to mover beyond the long list of situations requiring the mood, and understand the underlying principle(s). Somewhere I saw an article making a distinction between the informational and the intentional. Would you have any references covering this question?   Thanks very much.  John Nolan

Suppose we want to say that a price has gone up from 20 pesos to 30 pesos.  Could we say:

El precio ha aumentado de 20 pesos a 30 pesos.

El precio ha aumentado desde 20 pesos hasta 30 pesos.

Would either or both these statements be correct?

Thanks.

Several of my answers in several tests are misrecorded. I answered one way and it says I answered something else. What's going on?

Also, you should have explained that capitalizing, punctuation and accents must be correct. I was marked wrong for not putting a period at the end nd not capitalizing at the beginning. I don't mind but I would like to have known before i took the test.