Spanish language Q&A Forum

This example is wrong, no? Quizá Miguel no aprobara.

This is in the imperfect subjunctive. Shouldn't it be apruebe?

Why is it “los más ricos” and “los más listos”?

If the assumption is that we are referring to people, (la gente or las personas), should they not take the feminine form?

I encountered this in a video:

John es estudiante. Roger es UN estudiante también. 

Why does the article appear when también is added? Is this correct?  If so, what is the explanation?

(Google translate also adds the indefinite article when también is used.)

Why are these two sentences different? One uses "para comprar" and the other just "comprar." I want to understand the rule that allows you to omit "para" before an infinitive.

1. Le costó 5 dólares comprarlo de nuevo.

2. Él necesita 5 dólares para comprarlo.

In one of the questions, Cabrán is the very first word of the sentence, and there is no other part of the sentence (like a mid-stream capitalization.  I was marked only partially right for capitalizing it and it "corrected" me to lower-case.

Cabrán todo mis libros en esa caja?

Isn't that correct?  The quiz said it was supposed to be

cabràn todo mis libros en esa caja?

Also, would "va a darte" also be correct?

Not a big deal but would it be correct to abbreviate ustedes following con?

I wish there were a lesson explaining how the use of articles in Spanish differs from English.  For example, "he has a good heart" is "tiene buen corazon" not "un buen corazon".  Another example, "I will be in the first row" is "estare en primera fila" and not "en la primera fila".