Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
In this quiz question (Elia no va a empezar el curso este año ________ va a tener un año sabático.) it seems to me that "pero" works just as well as "sino que". It doesn't seem to be a clear distinction between pero and sino que - it seems they both can be right. In one sense, you are adding a new idea/action of taking a sabbatical & should use pero, or you can think of the sabbatical as a substitution for beginning classes and use sino que. Why is sino que "correct" and pero ïncorrect"?
How can I unsubscribe from Spanish and keep only French? Do I need to delete the account in the spanish section? I am afraid that will delete my French lessons too...
Thank you in advance for your help :).
Hi,
Qu 10
It is good that you read every night..........why does READ have to be in the subjuntive
Hola. Please help me this, im confused
Te dejé tus llaves. I know it means " I left your keys ", but what's te doing in this sentence?
Does it change the meaning or grammatically wrong if I don't have "te" in this sentence.
Sincerely thank you
"Acordaos que estamos fríendo esta tortilla a fuego lento."
Shouldn't it be "de que"?
hi team,
I have some questions.
´Es muy agradable porque la vuelta al frío es mucho más amena de esta manera.´ why is mucho being used instead of muy?
I thought that it will be used to describe ´amena´, an adjective.
´que ocurre a finales de septiembre ´. why is finales the plural being used and without articles ´los´?
Thanks in advance.
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
I see that “el” and “la” are based off masculine or feminine. How do I know if a general noun (e.g. car) is masculine or feminine tense?
I'm with the rest of the people below. How can a question be interpreted as a exclamation? If it has the ?? around it, it signifies a question. It shouldn't matter what language you're using. A question is a question. So how does this magically convert into a exclamation? Can someone from kwiziq please answer because it's been asked over and over for the past year. Thank you
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