Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,900 questions • 9,650 answers • 969,894 learners
Clever stuff happening!
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,900 questions • 9,650 answers • 969,894 learners
It would really help if the English translations were closer to the answer you're looking for, especially in this lesson where depending on whether you're in Latin America or Spain, people could choose either option and be correct.
This is the question from the quiz that I got wrong:
Hoy no _________________ a nadie interesante.I haven't met anybody interesting today.
I selected "he conocido" because that is the direct translation and it seems like that's what they'd say in Spain due to the timing. But in Latin America (which is my selected profile but I'm not sure that it actually impacts my quizzes or not), it would be "conoci".
If you translated it to "I didn't meet anyone interesting today", that would make sense in English and prompt the correct answer, would it not? Because it seems like based on this lesson, either answer is correct depending on what Spanish-speaking country you're in!
Is it
Voy para la casa de mi amigo. Is the use of para in this case particular to Spain? IN Mexico and New Mexico(where I live) I'm pretty sure the sentence would use the prepossition "a" as in Voy a la piscina.
The construction "... te permitirá conocer personas" reminded me that the personal "a" is inserted only if the object of the verb is a known human being - specifically identified .. Thank you !
[I am sure this is mentioned somewhere in one of your lessons, is it?]
I haven't seen this use of "que" before.
Ya son las tres. Andando, que llegamos tarde. It's 3 already. Let's get a move on, we're late.
¡Corriendo que nos mojamos! Hurry up, we're getting wet!
I like this. Is there a lesson on it?
Why the modal verb in the first word used to tuvo que, rather than same with the second word modal verb when they mean was both had to ???
In many lessons, we're told not to use the subjunctive when we have the same subject in both clauses. Yet a few examples in this lesson don't follow this rule. Could you please help us to understand when the rule applies and when it doesn't? Thanks.
"En su tiempo libre a Rafa le gusta jugar al golf, pescar, leer libros, ir al cine, ver series, pasar tiempo con su familia y cocinar platos de pasta."
Here all the things Rafa do in the free time please him and make him like them, why the verb "gustar" is not in plurar, since there are more than one inf. verb, thought gustan makes more sense. Could you plesae help me out.
I have answered two questions which I was marked incorrect.
Hor acio
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level