Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the test, the sentence 'No es verdad que  ________ siempre los papeles al suelo.' gave the answer as 'tiremos', and marked 'tiramos' as incorrect. So does this mean that if you present something as true, you use the indicative, but if you say something is not true, or that the truth is a negative, you use the subjunctive? I thought, in saying it is not true, the sentence was presenting something as a fact, and therefore the indicative would apply. 

How can you start the lesson with "Antes de que and Antes que are always followed by the subjunctive. For example:"

Then in the last part of the lesson give examples without the subjunctive. That's the opposite of always. 

HI Inma 

I'm not sure why the answer for this is conjugated singular (ha gustado) & not plural (han gustado);

Siempre me ________ leer autobiografías de gente famosa.

Thank you.

Does anyone know of a good free online language exchange?

No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso

Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and 
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.

Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?