Need more clarityPast tenses are confusing and these lessons do not have enough of an explainer. In this Idefinite Past, I see:
Ella hizo una tarta para mi cumpleaños.She made a cake for my birthday.
But, under the Present Perfect lesson, I see:
He hecho un pastel de chocolate.I made a chocolate cake.
There is not enough information to distinguish between the two forms. I do not see the difference. "I made a cake" and "she made a cake" are identical in format, yet different. If both answers are correct- after all, there are often several ways to say the same thing, I think that needs to be reflected here if that is the case.
Can you explain?
how is this different from quedarse? quedarse is also the state resulted from a change..
The question was to fill the missing word (the hint was only that heredero is masculine):
The Heir to the crown ....
______ heredero de la corona
I answered "El" and was told it is incorrect, it should have been "Un". This seems wrong?
Why are these two sentences different? One uses "para comprar" and the other just "comprar." I want to understand the rule that allows you to omit "para" before an infinitive.
1. Le costó 5 dólares comprarlo de nuevo.
2. Él necesita 5 dólares para comprarlo.
Why does "la" translate to "your" and not "the" In English? Example "quítate la ropa" translates to "take off your clothes" but "la ropa" translates to "the clothes" so why isn't there "the"?
Past tenses are confusing and these lessons do not have enough of an explainer. In this Idefinite Past, I see:
Ella hizo una tarta para mi cumpleaños.She made a cake for my birthday.
But, under the Present Perfect lesson, I see:
He hecho un pastel de chocolate.I made a chocolate cake.
There is not enough information to distinguish between the two forms. I do not see the difference. "I made a cake" and "she made a cake" are identical in format, yet different. If both answers are correct- after all, there are often several ways to say the same thing, I think that needs to be reflected here if that is the case.
Can you explain?
Why a before bergamota?
"Esta debe ser roja para tener amor, blanca para llamar a LA paz, azul para buena salud y negra para atraer EL lujo". I consistently get this wrong. I either add a definite article or miss it out. Are there any rules for this?
I’ve noticed that nouns with accents on the last syllable, such as el motín, el bastón, and el almacén, are masculine (of course the feminine ión ending is an exception). Is this a general rule? It helps to us automatically think of ataúd and laúd as masculine without having to remember them separately.
Somehow I haven’t seen the verbs “derrapar” and “pisar” before. It’s great that you’re choosing verbs that expand our vocabulary. Keep up the good work.
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