Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the kwiz, there was a phrase to complete: "Me vi tentada ..." I had selected tentado instead of tentada, which was marked wrong. The thing was that there was no indication, neither in the sentence itself or in the instructions, that the speaker was female. Why then would "Me vi tentado..." be incorrect?

In a grammar textbook, I ran across the structure "la + de + nombre + que + verbo (+ sujeto) (+ tiempo o lugar)" as an intensifier.  Does this have the same function as "qué de"?

Worth a trip to Spain just to hear Inma speak . . .

Well, I guess if that's how they speak in Argentina, I won't be visiing there soon, if ever. Apart from the yeismo, the speaker articulated more through her nose than through the mouth (French-style) making her words almost impossible to understand. Good, clear Spanish is my aim.

Why does one sentence use con terminación en., And the next sentence use  que acaban en for the same English construction? 

Some examples use the verb “estar”.  But can we ever use “ser”?  Ex:  “Mis primos fueron aburridos hasta que viajaron a españa.”  Thanks.

Why is "lo mío" singular? Why not "los míos son" or "lo mío es"?

The question did not specify to use the tú or usted form, and in a later question, it did specify "tú."  So I typed "leyó", but was marked wrong. I had "leiste" until I saw "tú" specified later, so I changed it.  Either both should be right or it should be specified, to reduce frustration.  I can see if you were talking to a family member or close friend (in an obvious context), then it should be expected to be "tú." But this was quite ambiguous- you could have loaned a book to a friend or a colleague or boss.