1,597 questions • 2,507 answers • 283,925 users
I am confused
When can i use hay...hace...estar
Can u explain in details plz
And i need more exercise in this thing
Thx in advance
I have a question
Why it's "las" before dos ...tres..etc
And before una it's "la"
In this item: "Era recomendable que fuéramos juntos a la excursión" why is "fuéramos" and not "vayamos" used for the translation "It was recommended that we go together on the trip."?
"A new Reference Grammar ..." by Butt and Benjamin discusses Spanish verbs which can be followed by an infinitive instead of the subjunctive - even when the subjects are different in the two halves of the sentence, e.g. persuadir, ayudar, enseñar, [+ preposition 'a']. The authors suggest that "pedir" may be starting to move in that direction (mainly in Latin America, where rules are perhaps more relaxed than in Spain, particularly in conversations?) In addition, the infinitive construction with 'pedir' seems to be creeping into casual journalistic style, especially in headlines.
It's translated let me tell you. So why isn't there a me before let?
You have placed the 'tilde' incorrectly in the sentence "En el café se discutía de toros, politíca, teatro y literatura" > It should be written: "... política …" - [in "Tertulias en el Café Gijón" , B2]
I see there is a new layout which looks good but when answering some of the questions at the bottom there seems to no Next button yo move on.
Why is the last sentence written as "y no abusemos de ellas"? I thought that it should be "no las abusemos". Is there a rule for when you put "de ellas" at the end of the sentence? I thought that you weren't allowed to have pronouns on the end of sentences in Spanish.
It is possible, I believe, to form a [sort of?] passive with 'estar' - is it? … Do you have an exercise on that? (perhaps highlighting comparisons with the 'ser' passive).