Spanish language Q&A Forum

Confession. I always cheat on questions regarding the second person plural because I live in California where I have frequent opportunities to use Spanish and hope to have more both at home and in travels to Central and South America. No disrespect to Spain, but is there any way to alter my tests so they exclude questions which test Spanish as it's spoken in Spain. Thanks.

When, if ever, is the construction "no...nada" used? When is "nada" used?

Just curious! Is there a difference in use in terms of formal/informal register with these two constructions, or is “tan...como” just more common? Thanks!

Hi,

In the sentence above, the translation of "... comer sano." is given as '... eat healthily'.  Doesn't 'sano' mean 'healthy' and 'sanamente' mean healthily?

I'm sorry to be so pedantic, but I like to get things right at the start.

Best regards,

Colin

Would it be correct to include the articles Un, una after por? 

Hola Inma

Are any of these suffixes interchangeable or are they noun/verb/adjective specific. For example could you say "perrote," or "perrón" as well as "perrazo."

Saludos. John

1:30 is more than 1:00. 1 = es. Me imagino que más que uno debe estar "son", no? Or are all hours plural even when they're not?

I don't understand the construction of the sentence: You do not have my permission to talk to me this way

“no te consiento que me hables así” surely implies: I do not permit you to talk to me this way

Is this wrong:

Tú no tienes mi permiso para hablar conmigo así.

In the exercise, I translated 'so he was getting a little nervous' as 'así que se estaba poniendo un poco nervioso' but Kwizbot corrected it as 'así que se fue poniendo un poco nervioso'. In the explanation pages we are told that these two constructions are interchnageable but ir+gerund is more emphatic. So why was mine corrected? Is it wrong grammatically or does it sound absurd?