Spanish language Q&A Forum

I understand the lesson, but would you be kind enough to explain if these phrases are interchangeable with words such as "quienquiera" and "dondequiera"?

For example, is  "Sea quien sea el que me ha mandado flores, debe ser un romántico." the same as "Quienquiera sea el que me ha mandado flores, debe ser un romántico."?

I think I understand, but I would appreciate some clarification on this lesson. The way I'm reading this, it seems that if the person or object being referred to is general, then you don't use the "lo/la/los/las" But if it refers to a specific person or object, then you must use them.

For example:
"Has llamado a un doctor?" "No, no he llamado."
but
"Has llamado al doctor / a su doctor?" "No, no lo he llamado."

or
"Tienes dinero para el concierto?" "Si, tengo."
but
"Tienes el dinero que ahorraste para el concierto? "Si, lo tengo."

Am I on the right track?

It would be helpful to see the translation, since there are some words that I do not recognize (and I am too lazy to look them up).

Stewart

I can do the dictation but there are words I don't know the meaning of even if I can write them correctly. In the French version of the course - if you hover the cursor over the word it gives the translation.  Without that I have to go to google translate to get the meaning.  I find this annoying!   Surely the vocabulary should be  available, or the translation without having to find a dictionary or use google translate!?

Now I am confused about the use of Presente de subjuntivo versus futuro. If the condition is presently probable or future probable, then the future is used? If the present condition is unlikely or not probable, then I can use the subjuntivo? So the issue is the certainty or uncertainty of the condition? John will win/John (is certain to win): Juan ganará. I hope that John will win: Espero  que John gane.

I typed in a simple question:  HOW TO FORM IMPERFECT SUBJUNCTIVE and received many pages with endings of imperfect subjunctive and its uses, without once being given the simple method - the stem on which to add endings.  Is this anywhere explained?

Why do you use vosotros for Latin American Spanish?  My understanding is that is more for Spanish in Spain. Also, why do you focus on the alternative endings for the imperfect subjunctive? It seems like it’s focusing on something that is not as common as the other endings?  Can I tailor my quizzes and exercises so that it does not include these?

I'd like more examples of using Todavía no + Pretérito Indefinido = not yet as I am stuck with it. Are there other lessons available.  

The lesson states that "unos" and "unas" are both correct in front of a plural feminine noun beginning with a stressed a. The RAE says it isn't (https://www.rae.es/buen-uso-espa%C3%B1ol/el-art%C3%ADculo-ante-nombres-femeninos-comenzados-por-a-t%C3%B3nica), specifically citing "unos aulas" as incorrect.

It's a minor point, but where is the disconnect? Is the RAE being prescriptive here, or is something else going on?

I have the test question: A ustedes no ________ este documental, ¿verdad? The answer is "les gusta".  Why isn't it "les gustan"?