Spanish language Q&A Forum

A good exercise ! - but perhaps more at B2 rather than B1 level? - [no worries !]

However, I am a bit puzzled by two words (written here in bold letters) in "Aún así no importa como esté el tiempo" - I confess that I thought "cómo" should carry an accent, and that the first two words should be "Aun así  ..." [> ? could they be translated as: "In any event, (it does not matter ...)"] - although I do realise that I might not have completely understood the meaning here of "aún".

Thank you Inma; thank you Shui - keep up the good work !

. - . - . - .

Since I wrote that^ I've been chewing it over, and maybe I can now see an alternative translation which might fit the use of "como" with no accent > ? Something like: "Even with weather like that, there will be nothing to worry about". Perhaps both 'como' and 'cómo' are permissible, but with different meanings?

Hello, I would like a little help please.  In my head in order to differentiate between the imperfect past tense and the preterite past tense, I think "I used to...." to pick the imperfect.  In some of the examples here in kwiziq the "used to" is translated into English, such as here "Vosotros trabajabais en Madrid durante los años 80" as "I used to work in Madrid during the 80's"

However I have also seen "Soler" used for "used to" especially with 'IR" for used to go,

"Solía ir ..."
Is my "used to" translation for the imperfect to literal, and is it better to use "Soler" with verbs for "used to go" or "used to do" etc.
Sorry about the italics, I cut and paste a character and I can't turn them off!

This is really nitpicking but I think this can be worded a little more clearly:

"Notice that cada is invariable and is always followed by a singular noun, except when there is a number before the noun, in which case it needs a plural: "   I suggest replace "it" with "the noun" .  I know preposition refers to the last noun before it but in this case I was confused because I thought it meant "cada" that should be plural.  I think because I assumed the noun would obviously be plural.

Is this an impersonal sentence? 

The answer says "yes" but I think it can be "no". It seems more natural to translate this as "They have found a shipwreck on the beach." which could be a sentence from a story where "they" have been identified previously. Do you want us to answer "yes" for being "impersonal" whenever a sentence has no subject and uses third personal plural form of the main verb?  

The first person plural of present tense "to work" is nosotros trabajamos. The simple past is also nosotros trabajamos. Is the difference in translation based on context?  I may be overthinking this, but say it's noon and my mom asks me "how are you guys doing?" "Como estan?" and I reply "nosotros trabajamos."  Am I saying "we work (later) today" or "we worked (this morning)"?  I guess I'm supposed to follow this up with "esta manana" or "despues" to avoid confusion?

I didn’t find any examples for the use of these verbs adónde/adonde/dónde/donde when expressing wonderment.  Could you explain a bit, please.

I was informed by my test result that "tantas" was incorrect in this sentence: Mar tiene tantos días de vacaciones como tú.

Why "tantos" and not "tantas"?

Hi Inma

In the lesson you say: 

"There is no difference in meaning. Using one or the other depends on what the person is used to; some regions in Spain use one form more than the other, but both are correct."

However, I always believed their is difference that exists between the two: 

Olvidar = to forget by accident 

1) Siempre olvido las llaves del coche = I always forget my car keys 

2) ¡Ay no, olvidé hacer los deberes! = Oh no, I forgot to do the homework! (olvidar+infinitive)

Olvidarse de = to forget by choice, on purpose.

1) Ella se olvidó de sus problemas de dinero y se fue de compras = She forgot about her money problems and went shopping anyway (she chose to forget)

2) Solo quiero olvidarme de arruinar la fiesta de cumpleaños de mi hermano = I just want to forget about ruining my brother's birthday party (he's trying to forget)

I've always thought of it like the 'se'  is indicating that someone is doing something to his/herself (like ducharse, bañarse etc). I'm unsure where I learned this!

The accidental 'se' part is new to me

Saludos 

Hola Inma,

For the last sentence of this passage, for my translation, I wrote, ¡Qué baile tan bonito! It was however marked as incorrect. Please could you explain why that is? 

Gracias.