Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is it ‘hacer la lumbre en la cocina', then later ‘hacer el fuego'? Is it because, the second time, we are more focused on actually getting a fire going, and the first time we're thinking about the type of fire?

¡Feliz Navidad a Inma, Shui y todo el equipo...que lo paséis bien! :))

In the last line, why " vive a Madrid" not " vive en Madrid"?

I can't see the difference in meaning between the English of the first and second examp;es in the lesson, so how can I decode on Indicative or Subjubctive?

So, I'm trying to solidify this idea in my head by contrasting it with the imperfecto de subjuntivo. Is the subordinate clause not in the subjunctive here because the speaker (presumably the 3rd party and the person repeating the statement) take for granted the factual of the idea (ie in the sentence "el hombre de tiempo dijo que llovería hoy" that the idea that it is going to rain is considered a fact, and not a supposition. 

Following your hint, I tried to use "agusto" as an adjective. On being marked wrong, I looked to see what options my dictionary allowed, but I could not find any noun or adjective spelled that way. A gusto o Agusto - Diccionario de Dudas > https://www.diccionariodedudas.com/a-gusto-o-agusto throws some light on the puzzle. But if we use "a gusto", should we rather write: "Cómo a gusto nos hemos sentido" - would that also be OK?

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