Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, 

What's the meaning of "se" in this sentence: El frotar se va a acabar...

No se puede viajar a ese país hasta que ________ seguro.

I don't understand why this sentence is translated as ... ('we' can't travel). Wouldn't it be podemos for *we* ? I thought *puede* was singular for he/her/it

I also don't understand why the answer is *sea* and not *se*

Can someone please explain.

The test question and answer does not seem to make sense for this lesson about the al contraction. The question was: Tenemos que ir ________ estación de Atocha en Madrid. We need to go to Atocha station in Madrid.

First, "We need" is necisitamos. Tenemos que is "We have to"

Second, this is a question about the al and del contractions, but the answer to this question is "a la"  so I do not understand the test question.

I love this song! But just so you know there's a bit of English in the last paragraph

In this piece, the future events are expressed using ir, a, and the infinitive. My two-part question is whether, in the circumstances depicted in the piece, the simple future tense and/or the present tense could be used to express the future and under what circumstances each of the three choices is either indicated or preferred.

Muchas gracias de antemano.

I was marked wrong for answering "Nosotros LES damos juguetes a nuestros hijos" instead of just "damos" I thought that the indirect object pronoun HAD to be used. What am I missing? When should I be using it? 

Thanks.

rofl. Roberto: El conquistador a Angela!

1:30 is more than 1:00. 1 = es. Me imagino que más que uno debe estar "son", no? Or are all hours plural even when they're not?

I get this message a lot :

You took this Kwiz 2 days, 20 hours ago.

This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.